ARRL Says Remote access FCC Legal, even if you buy time on one.

ARRL Says Remote access FCC Legal, even if you buy time on one.

Henderson, Dan N1ND 2014-07-26 @ 4:02pm

Tim

It doesn't matter who owns the equipment.  No where in Part 97 does it state anything about saying where your station is if you are in territory where the FCC regulates radio.

Nothing in the rules say I have to say I am using someone else's station if I am the control operator and using my callsign.

As far as payment - this is no different than me renting a radio for temporary use.  The person is not being paid to operate.  It is no different than renting a car. They are being paid to make contacts themselves.

You are overthinking this - it isn't a difficult scenario or rule.


73 - and back to my vacation :-)

Dan Henderson, N1ND
ARRL Regulatory Information Manager
Phone: 860-594-0236
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From: Tim Havens 
Sent: Saturday, July 26, 2014 11:09 AM
To: Henderson, Dan N1ND
Subject: Re: Question about Remote use on 50 Mhz and Identification of the remote TX

This doesn't relate to your 'mobile' example (as I'm not talking about operating as a mobile).

But it does related to your second paragraph, where this would be like allowing another operator control YOUR station.  In this case I understand you're saying it's not required to sign anything other than your own callsign.  So I guess this is all a-ok.

So second question:  Is using someone else's remote station without that stations primary licensee being in direct control of it ok?  I'm guessing you'll say yes.  And that in that case the remote-in callsign assumes legal responsibility for it?

Third question: Is it okay for the primary station licensee to accept payment/rental fees for use of his station like this?

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I'm just trying to understand that this is indeed ok to be happening.

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On Sat, Jul 26, 2014 at 9:19 AM, Henderson, Dan N1ND <dhenderson@arrl.org wrote:
Tim

Your interpretation is not correct.  All the rules require is sending your FCC callsign.  They do not require you to send your location.  I also don't have to send "N1ND/4" if I am operating in North Carolina or "N1ND/mobile" if I am operating in the car.  All the FCC rules require is that I send my FCC-issued callsign if I am operating in territory where the FCC control amateur radio.

I can also allow someone to use my station under their own callsign - they don't have to sign with my callsign if the are using my stations> If they are the control operator they may use their own callsign at my station with my permission.

73

Dan Henderson, N1ND, dhenderson@arrl.org
ARRL Regulatory Information Manager
Phone: 860-594-0236<tel:860-594-0236>
________________________________________
From: Tim Havens 

Sent: Saturday, July 26, 2014 9:42 AM
To: reginfo
Subject: Question about Remote use on 50 Mhz and Identification of the remote TX

I've been hearing several remote stations being operated by hams who are not the licensed remote transmitter on 50 Mhz this summer.  My question is, what are the rules related to such operation related to IDENTIFICATION.

As I read 97.119 it states "(a) Each amateur station, except a space station or telecommand station, must transmit its assigned call sign on its transmitting channel at the end of each communication, and at least every 10 minutes during a communication, for the purpose of clearly making the source of the transmissions from the station known to those receiving the transmissions. No station may transmit unidentified communications or signals, or transmit as the station call sign, any call sign not authorized to the station."

When I have heard these remotes in use for example a W6 using a Remote located in FL (that he does not own) he signed his W6 callsign and during the transmission he mentioned he was using a 'remote in Florida'.  It is not a remote that the W6 owns.

Shouldn't the FL 'remote' also have to Identify itself to be legal with 97.119(a)?

I've heard talk about these remotes being "Telecommand" however the rules define Telecommand as one-way (from what I've seen).  And this type of operation is 2-way.

Can you please clear this matter up for me?  I'm confused.


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